GEOL 1001.

 

Third Exam.

 

 

Questions 1 and 2, see Figure below.

 

 

 

1. What type of faults are shown by “A” and “B”?

a. reversed, reversed b. normal, normal c. normal, reversed d. reversed, normal

 

2. What type of stress (force) created these structures?

a. tension b. compression c. shearing d. can’t tell

 

3. The commonest type of volcanic rock formed close to convergent plate boundaries is:

a. granite b. rhyolite c. andesite d. basalt e. gabbro

 

4. The ______Cycle can be summarized by the statement “Oceans open and close repeatedly over geological time”.

a. Wegener b. Holmes c. Wilson d. Milankovitch e. Mohorovicic

 

5. On going from the crust to the mantle, both the P and S wave velocities rise sharply.

a. True b. False

 

6. To completely record ground movement at a station, one needs a minimum of ____

seismometers. a. one b. two c. three d. four e. five

 

7. Terms associated with subduction zones include:

a. intermediate type volcanism b. accreted terrane c. mid-ocean ridges d. a and b e. b and c.

 

8. An axial plane divides a fold as symmetrically as possible. a. True b. False

 

9. The Earth’s magnetic field is caused by electric currents flowing in the Earth’s ______.

a. oceans b. crust c. mantle d. core e. atmosphere

 

10. Dip slip faults result from:

a. (ex)tension b. folding c. shearing d. a and b e. a, b and c.

 

11. Accreted terranes are produced at/near subduction zones by very dense material brought into

collision with continents. a. True b. False

 

12. The statement that “mountains have roots” can be verified by _______ studies.

a. seismic b. gravity c. magnetic d. a and b e. a, b and c

 

13. The Moho occurs at a shallower depth (from the surface of the Earth) under oceans than under

continents. a. True b. False

 

14. The central part of mid-ocean ridges are marked by _____ faults.

a. normal b. reversed c. transform

 

15. P waves:

a. are push-pull waves b. are faster than S-waves c. can travel through both liquids and solids d. a, b and c.

 

16. The S-P interval at a given station depends on:

a. the magnitude of the earthquake b. distance from the focus c. type of faulting that caused the earthquake d. a and c.

 

17. Which type of waves do the maximum damage to structures following earthquakes?

a. P b. S c. surface d. a and b.

 

18. Which ocean has many subduction zone around its edges?

a. Pacific b. Atlantic c. Indian d. Arctic e. Antarctic

 

19. All oceanic crust found (within oceans) today falls in the age range _____ m.y. old.

a. 100 - 0 b. 800 - 200 c. 200 - 100 d. 200 - 0 e. 50 - 0

 

20. Deep focus earthquakes occur at or close to _____ plate boundaries, whereas shallow focus

earthquakes occur at ____ plate boundaries.

a. divergent ,all types of b. convergent, divergent c. transform fault, convergent

d. convergent, all types of e none of the above.

 

21. As seismic waves travels from the inner core into the outer core:

a. P wave velocity increases b. P wave velocity decreases c. S waves appear

d. S waves disappear e. b and d.

 

22. As we move from the Mid-Atlantic Ridge towards the South American continent towards, the oceanic crust becomes:

a. hotter and older b. colder and bolder c. younger and hotter d. hotter and bolder e. none of the above.

 

23. Different points on a given (oceanic) plate can move with the different velocities due to the

existence of transform faults such as the Kane Fracture Zone. a. True b. False

 

24. The Earth’s moon was formed at about _____ b.y.

a. 5.5 b. 4.5 c. 3.5 d. 2.5 e. 1.5

25. The Curie Point of magnetic minerals (magnetite) is about ____ o C.

a. 800 b. 600 c. 400 d. 1200 e. 1000

 

 

26. Young <15 m.y.) oceanic crust when it reaches a convergent plate boundary, should subduct

showing a steep angle (>45 o ) of descent. a. True b. False

 

27. At the top of the asthenosphere, the P and S wave velocities fall with increasing depth.

a. True b. False

 

28. What type of structures may be formed by tensional stress?

a. folds, normal faults b. folds, reverse faults c. thinning, normal faults d. folds, transcurrent faults e. b and c

 

29. The diameter of the Earth is about _______ km.

a. 3000 b. 6000 c. 13000 d. 20000 e. 25000

 

30. Which section of Gondwanaland has moved the farthest in the last ~200 m.y.?

a. Australia b. Antarctica c. India d. Africa e. Eurasia

 

31. Ophiolites are made up of the following types of “rocks” moving from bottom to top.

a. sediment, gabbro, pillow lavas b. pillow lavas, sediment, gabbro c. gabbro, pillow lavas, sediment
d. sediment, pillow lavas, gabbro e. pillow lavas, gabbro, sediment

 

32. A melange is a “structure” found close to ____ plate boundaries and made up of _____

rocks. a. transform fault, sedimentary b. divergent, sedimentary c. convergent, igneous d. convergent, sedimentary e. divergent, igneous

 

33. The average value of the geothermal gradient close to the Earth’s surface is about ______.

a. 30000 o C/m b. 300 o C/km c. 0.03 o C/m d. 100 o C/km e. 30 o C/cm

 

34. Oceanic crust is ____and _____ than continental crust.

a. lighter, thinner b. denser, thinner c. lighter, thicker d. denser, thicker

 

35. What type of volcanism occurs at (oceanic) spreading centers?

a. shalic b. intermediate c. felsic d. ultramafic e. none of the above.

36. What type of volcanism occurs at transform fault boundaries?

a. mafic b. intermediate c. felsic d. ultramafic e. none of the above.

 

37. The dip of a given bed is 50 o N. Which of the following could represent its strike direction?

a. SE b. W c. E d. S e. b and c.

 

38. Raised beaches are created during glacial epochs. a. True b. False

 

39. The San Andreas fault is of the _____ (fault) variety.

a. normal b. reverse c. transform

 

40. To find the epicenter of an earthquake, one needs to the S-P interval determined at a minimum of ____ seismological locations (stations).

a. one b. two c. three d. four e. five

 

 

41. The Earth’s rotational axis was changed by the formation of the moon.

a. True b. False

 

42. At a convergent plate boundary, the __________ helps determine the angle at which

subduction is occurring.

a. Laurasian zone b. Wegener hypothesis c. Orogenic zone d. Benioff zone e. Wilson zone

 

43. The stable interior of continents, not disturbed by deformation for a few b.y. are called:

a. orogens b. orgasms c. cratons d. croutons e. cretins

 

44. Which of the following plates should be moving most rapidly?

a. North American b. South American c. Nazca d. African

 

45. The source of an earthquake, from which seismic waves spread out, is called the epicenter.

a. True b. False

 

46. The approximate velocity of seismic waves in rocks is a few _____.

a. cm/sec b. m/sec c. km/sec d. km/hr. e. mm/y

 

47. A thrust fault has a strike of NE-SW. Its dip could be:

a. 60 o NW b. 10 o NE c. 25 o S d. 10 o SE e. a and d.

 

48. An earthquake of (Richter) magnitude 3 releases _____ times more energy than one of

magnitude 6.

a. 90 b. 27,000 d. 270,000 d. 9 e. none of the above

 

49. Faulting displays primarily ductile behavior of rocks subjected to stress.

a. True b. False

 

50. The temperature at the top of the asthenosphere is about ______ o C.

a. 120 b. 400 c. 1200 d. 2500 e. 5800

 

51. The tenth highest mountain in the world is found in which mountain range?

a. Alps b. Rockies c. Himalayas d. Andes e. Sierra Nevada

 

52. Synclines and anticlines commonly occur close to normal faults. a. True b. False

 

53. A basaltic lava flow is erupted on Dec. 1, 2004, at a temperature of 1300 o C. If it cools at a

steady rate of 20 o C/day, on which day should it first display magnetic properties ?

a. 12/10/2004 b. 12/20/2004 c. 1/10/2005 d. 2/20/2005 e. 12/25/2004